is pi really 3pi backwards because if u use the method of Zuenic and apply it to pi it worksIs this true about pi because if it is we can double our knowledge on the digits of pi?
pi is irrational and hence goes forever with repetition (in any natural base). Since 3pi has a beginning, saying that pi is 3pi backwards would mean that pi has an end - this is blatantly false.Is this true about pi because if it is we can double our knowledge on the digits of pi?
i think you have proven to know twice as much as you did before you posted this
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